Pre Test Questions

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FTCE Chemistry Pre-Test. Multiple Choice. Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1. White gold, used in jewelry, contains ...
FTCE Chemistry Pre-Test Multiple Choice Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1. White gold, used in jewelry, contains two elements, gold and palladium. Two different samples of white gold differ in the relative amounts of gold and palladium that they contain. Both are uniform in composition througout. Without knowing any more about the materials, which classification best fits white gold? a. Heterogeneous mixture c. Compound b. Homogeneous mixture d. Element 2. What is the molecular mass of a gas that has a density of 2.05g/L at 26.0oC and 722 torr? a. 26 g/mol c. 32 g/mol b. 46 g/mol d. 53 g/mol 3. An intravenous saline solution typically contains 0.750g of sodium chloride per 100.0mL of solution. What is the molar concentration of NaCl in this solution? a. 0.291M c. 0.750M b. 0.128M d. 2.28M 4. Two bottles of soda are opened. One is a cold bottle, and the other is at room temperature. Which system would show more effervescence, and why? a. room temperature, because the gas is more soluble b. cold, because the gas is more soluble c. room temperature, because the gas is less soluble d. cold, because the gas is less soluble 5. Solvents A and B form an ideal solution. Solvent A has a vapor pressure of 345 mmHg at room temperature. At the same temperature, solvent B has a vapor pressure of 213 mmHg. What is the vapor pressure of a mixture in which the mole fraction of A is 0.285? a. 399.0 torr c. 159.0 torr b. 136.3 torr d. 250.6 torr 6. The freezing point depression constant from camphor is 40.0oC/mol. A 2.35 gram sample of an unknown molecular compound is mixed with 50.0grams of camphor. The melting point of camphor is them observed to decrease from the normal 178.40oC to 173.20oC. What is the molecular mass of the unknown molecule? a. .362 g/mol c. .277 g/mol b. 362 g/mol d. 277 g/mol 7. Calculate the density of mercury if 1x102g occupies a volume of 7.36cm3? a. 136.0 g/cm3 c. 73.6 g/cm3 3 b. 13.6 g/cm d. 736.0 g/cm3 8. If 980kJ of energy are added to 6.2L of water at 291K, what will the final temperature of the water be? (Specific heat of water=4.18 J/gK) a. 378K c. 305K b. 292K d. 329K 9. A student leaves an uncapped watercolor marker on an open notebook. Later, the student discovers the leaking marker has produced a rainbow of colors on the top page. Which form of separation is this? a. Extraction c. Distillation b. Filtration d. Chromatography

10. When an archer releases a bow, a. kinetic energy is transformed into potential energy b. gravitational potential energy is transformed into elastic potential energy c. elastic potential energy is transformed into gravitational potential energy d. potential energy is transformed into kinetic energy 11. An atom of Neon, traveling at the speed of light, has an energy value of 1.51x10-9. What is the mass of the atom in kg? a. 1.68x10-26kg c. 1.36x10-7kg -17 b. 1.01x10 kg d. 3.35x10-26kg 12. Using the following phase diagram for water, at what pressure will all three states of matter be present?

a. 0.01 atm b. 100.00 atm

c. 0.0060 atm d. 1.00 atm

13. Using the following heating curve, name the process that is occuring at line segment D.

a. condensation b. deposition

c. melting d. boiling

14. If methane experiences combustion, what is the enthalpy change? a. 802.3 kJ/mol c. -802.3 kJ/mol b. -951.9 kJ/mol d. 951.9 kJ/mol

15. Which of the following reactions experiences a reduction in the amount of Entropy? a. b. c. d. 16. A reaction has and a. and low temperatures b. and high temperatures

. For which set of conditions will the reaction be spontaneous c. and high temperatures d. and low temperatures

17. What is the frequency of a wave whose wavelength is a. 8.3x10-16 c. 1.2x1015 b. 3.4x104 d. 7.5x101

?

18. Which process is most likely to occur when a molecule is exposed to infrared radiation a. molecular vibrations will change b. electrons will move to higher energy orbitals c. nuclear spin states will vary d. bonds will rupture 19. Friction commonly causes a. kinetic energy to be converted into potential energy b. potential energy to be converted into chemical energy c. potential energy to be converted into kinetic energy d. kinetic energy to be converted into thermal energy 20. Which form of spectroscopy yields mass to charge ratio data? a. NMR spectroscopy c. Microwave spectroscopy b. UV spectroscopy d. Mass spectroscopy 21. Which of the following contains only covalent bonds? a. c. b.

d.

22. Which of the following compounds will contain the most non-polar covalent bonds? a. c. b. d. 23. Which of the following is a formula for an alkene? a. c. b. d. 24. Ethene, a. b.

, contains what type of hybridization? c. d.

25. How many pi bonds are in the following formula?

a. 1 b. 3

c. 4 d. 2

26. Which of the following shapes best describes the molecule ? a. Pyramidal c. Trigonal Planar b. T-Shaped d. Tetrahedral 27. Which of the following is an incorrectly drawn lewis dot structure? a.

b.

c.

d.

28. According to VSEPR, what shape will a. non-linear b. linear

take? c. L-Shaped d. bent

29. Which of the following is a not a polar molecule?

a. b.

c. d.

30. Which of the following is most likely to be a gas at room temperature? a. c. b. d. 31. Which of the following is an inorganic molecule? a. Formaldehyde c. Ammonia b. Methanol d. Maltose 32. Which of the following is the correct formula for Iron (III) Nitrate? a. c. b. d. 33. Which of the following is the correct name for the molecule: a. Butene c. Butane b. Butanol d. Butyne 34. Which of the following is an alcohol? a. b.

c. d.

35. Which of the following is the primpary component of cellular membranes a. Nucleic Acids c. Carbohydrates b. Proteins d. Lipids 36. Which of the following does not represent a properly balanced equation? a. b. c. d. 37. Which of the following show the correctly balanced equation and appropriate products for the reaction of Calcium Oxide with Water. a. b. c. d. 38. How much Oxygen gas is created by the decomposition of 100g of Barium Chlorate? a. 50.8gO2 c. 10.5gO2 b. 3.42gO2 d. 31.6gO2 39. What volume of Dinitrogen monoxide is created by the decomposition of 50.g of ammonium nitrate into gaseous dinitrogen monoxide and liquid water? a. 7L N2O c. 14L N2O b. 28L N2O d. 21L N2O 40. How many mL of 1.5M Ammonium Sulfide are needed to react fully with 300mL of 2.0M Zinc(II)Nitrate? a. 400mL (NH4)2S c. 150mL (NH4)2S

b. 300mL (NH4)2S

d. 200mL (NH4)2S

41. How many moles of water are made in the following reaction if 100g of both Ammonia and Oxygen are used? a. 3.92 moles H2O b. 8.82 moles H2O

c. 2.60 moles H2O d. 3.75 moles H2O

42. A laboratory experiment has determined the percentage composition of a compound(by weight) is 0.57% Hydrogen, 72.1% Iodine and 27.3% Oxygen. Which of the following is the empirical formula for this compound? a. c. b. d. 43. What would happen to the rate of reaction of an exothermic reaction if the system were placed into an ice bath? a. It would speed up c. It would reverse the reaction b. It would slow down d. It would have no change in reaction 44. In which direction will the equilibrium shift if the volume of the following system is increased?

a. towards the left b. towards the right 45. In the study of the M to a. 1.5 b. 3

c. both sides will be equally effected d. neither side will experience a shift reaction, when the Ammonia concentration was changed from M, the rate increased from c. 2 d. 1

M/s to

M/s. Find the reaction order.

46. Which of the following is the correct equilibrium expression for the balanced chemical equation: a.

c.

b.

d.

47. Which of the following best describes a system at chemical equilibrium? a. A reaction in which the rates in opposite directions are neither constant or equal. b. A reaction in which the rates in opposite directions are variable. c. A reaction in which the rates in opposite directions are constant, but not equal. d. A reaction in which the rates in opposite directions are both constant and equal. 48. A weak base is most likely to have which of the following? a. a weak conjugate acid c. a strong conjugate acid b. a strong conjugate base d. a weak conjugate base 49. A student titrates 40.00mL of an HCl solution of unkown concentration with a 0.5500M NaOH solution. The volume of base solution needed to reach the equivalence point is 24.64mL. What is the concentration of the HCl solution in moles per liter? a. .03388 mol/L c. .01792 mol/L b. .05580 mol/L d. .02952 mol/L

50. Which of the following is an oxidation-reduction reaction? a. b. c. d. 51. What is the fully balanced chemical equation for the following redox reaction in an acidic aqueous solution: a. b. c. d. 52. What is the cell potential and level of spontaneity for the volatic cell consisting of the following half cells: an Iron electrode in an Iron (III) Nitrate solution, and a Silver electrode in a Silver nitrate solution. a. +0.84: non-spontaneous c. -0.84: non-spontaneous b. +0.84; spontaneous d. -0.84: spontaneous 53. What is the pH of HCl with a concentration of 3.3x10-4M? a. 4.5 c. 3.0 b. 3.5 d. 4.0 54. Which of the following has the correct number of protons, neutrons and electrons for an atom of a. p=82, n=127, e=86 c. p=82, n=127, e=78 b. p=82, n=127, e=82 d. p=127, n=82, e=127 55. Which of the following elements is a soft, highly reactive metal that will react with water to form a hydroxide. a. Potassium c. Phosphorus b. Aluminum d. Iron 56. Which of the following is the correct electron notation for the element Copper? a. b. c. d. 57. Which of the following elements will be most likely to donate 2 valence electrons to Oxygen in formation of an ionic bond? a. Lithium c. Cesium b. Rubidium d. Calcium 58. The nuclear decay of Polonium-212 into Lead-208 releases which form of nuclear radiation? a. Alpha Particle c. Electron Capture b. Positron d. Beta Particle 59. An isotope of Thorium has a half-life of 24.10 days. How many days have passed if a 100g sample has decayed to 0.78125g. a. 168.7 days c. 144.6 days b. 120.5 days d. 192.8 days

60. A scientist is evaluating the validity of a pesticide company’s claim. He measures the application of the product on the plant, the centimeters of plant eaten by insects, a gardener’s opinion on the efficacy of the product, and the general health of the plants after treatment. Which of the following is a scientific observation from the above information? a. The pesticide works b. The number of centimeters eaten by insects each day varies on each plant c. The plants liked the pesticide d. The amount of pesticide used on each plant is directly proportional to the amount of plant eaten by insects 61. Which of the following is not part of the scientific process? a. Replication of results b. Publication of data c. Setting up experiments with controlled variables d. Making guesses with no background reasearch 62. A scientist performs a titration of a unkown acid with an unknown base. Which of the following data items collected describes one qualitative and one quantitative data item. a. color of the indicator and the color of the acid b. milliliters of acid titrated and the color of the indicator c. pH range of the indicator and the millimeters of base present d. color of the base and the appearance of the indicator 63. Read the following excerpt and answer the questions below. After the Florida Gator football coach tried all the accepted methods for dehydration therapy- salt tablets and orange juice, he turned to the team coach, who worked with a University of Florida medical researcher. (Dr Dana Shires and Dr Robert Cade) “What Cade and Shires realized is that the salts replace the salts lost, but not the water, lost by sweat. ... orange juice, which is about 10% sugar, causes stomach cramps... high sugar concentrations in stomach keep water from passing through the body’s cells.” Cade and Shires made a “sweat-like” solution, which was sweetened with sugar to reduce the bitter flavor, and Gatorade was born. Waldron, K. (2007). The Chemistry of everything. Upper Saddle River, NJ: Pearson Prentice Hall.

Which of the following statements best describes Cade and Shires work? a. Applied research with no economic impact b. Applied research with an economic impact c. Basic research with no economic impact d. Basic research with an economic impact 64. How many mL are in 5m3 of a substance? a. 500mL b. 5,000mL

c. 50,000mL d. 500,000mL

65. A researcher investigates the product of an extraction process. The desired sample has a melting point of 130.6 oC. After three extractions, she has isolated samples with the following melting points: 129.9oC, 130.4oC, and 130.9oC. Which of the following best describes the results of the researcher? a. Accurate with systematic errors

b. Accurate with random errors c. Precise with systematic errors d. Precise with random errors 66. Which of the following is the correct Kelvin temperature for 45oF? a. 318.15K c. 322.15K b. 280.37K d. 266.15K 67. Which of the equipment listed is the best choice for dehydrating a crystalline solid over a bunsen burner? a. crucible c. beaker b. Round bottom flask d. evaporating dish 68. Reported to the correct number of significant figures, what is the correct answer for the multiplication of 130.0560 by 0.004507? a. 0.586 c. 0.58616 b. 0.5862 d. 0.586162 69. Carbonic acid is part of a buffer system within your blood. Which compound listed below is the appropriate choice to complete the buffer system? a. c. b.

d.

70. The following image is best described by which orbital shape?

a. s b. p

c. d d. f